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BATCH 3

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May 11, 2026
IELTS Predition Test | L40 S40 W1
IELTS Predition Test | L40 S40 W1
Step 1
Step 2
Step 3
Step 4

IELTS Predition Test

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Listening Section

Questions 1-2

Select your answer below.

Audio 1

Attention: This audio can only be played once. The playback will be locked after completion.

Ready to start

1. In the lobby of the library George saw
A. a group playing music
B. a display of instruments.
C. a video about the festival.
2. George wants to sit at the back so they can
A. see well.
B. hear clearly.
C. pay less.
Questions 3-10

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
3. Write your answer here
4. Write your answer here
5. Write your answer here
6. Write your answer here
7. Write your answer here
8. Write your answer here
9. Write your answer here
10 Write your answer here
Questions 11-15

Complete the sentence below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

Audio 2

Attention: This audio can only be played once. The playback will be locked after completion.

Ready to start

11. Write your answer here
12. Write your answer here
13. Write your answer here
14. Write your answer here
15. Write your answer here
Questions 16-18

Choose THREE letters, A-G.

Which THREE things can students have with them in the museum?

A. food
B. water
C. cameras
D. books
E. bags
F. pens
G. worksheets
16. select here
A
B
C
D
E.
F
G
17
A
B
C
D
E.
F
G
18
A
B
C
D
E.
F
G
Questions 19-20

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO activities can students do after the tour at present?

A. build model dinosaurs
B. watch films
C. draw dinosaurs
D. find dinosaur eggs
E. play computer games
19
A
B
C
D
E
20
A
B
C
D
E
Questions 21-24

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Field Trip Proposal

Audio 3

Attention: This audio can only be played once. The playback will be locked after completion.

Ready to start

21
A. should be re-ordered in some parts.
B. needs a contents page.
C. ought to include more information.
22
A. inserted subheadings.
B. used more paragraphs.
C. shortened her sentences.
23
A. Separate points were not clearly identified.
B. The headings were not always clear.
C. Page numbering was not used in an appropriate way.
24
A. articles she read.
B. movies she saw as a child.
C. photographs she found on the internet.
Questions 25-27

Choose THREE letters, A-G.

Which THREE topics does Sandra agree to include in the proposal?

A. climate change
B. field trip activities
C. geographical features
D. impact of tourism
E. myths and legends
F. plant and animal life
G. social history
25
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
26
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
27
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Questions 28-30

Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

28. The tribal park covers ……………………. hectares.
29. Sandra suggests that they share the ……………………. for transport.
30. She says they could also explore the local ……………………. .
Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Audio 4

Attention: This audio can only be played once. The playback will be locked after completion.

Ready to start

31. Write your answer here
32. Write your answer here
33. Write your answer here
34. Write your answer here
35. Write your answer here
36. Write your answer here
37. Write your answer here
38. Write your answer here
39. Write your answer here
40. Write your answer here
Reading Section

Questions 1-4

Reading Passage 1 has eight paragraphs, A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet
1. a description of an early timekeeping invention affected by cold temperatures
Paragraph A
Paragraph B
Paragraph C
Paragraph D
Paragraph E
Paragraph F
Paragraph G
Paragraph H
2. an explanation of the importance of geography in the development of the calendar in farming communities
Paragraph A
Paragraph B
Paragraph C
Paragraph D
Paragraph E
Paragraph F
Paragraph G
Paragraph H
3. a description of the origins of the pendulum clock
Paragraph A
Paragraph B
Paragraph C
Paragraph D
Paragraph E
Paragraph F
Paragraph G
Paragraph H
4. details of the simultaneous efforts of different societies to calculate time using uniform hours
Paragraph A
Paragraph B
Paragraph C
Paragraph D
Paragraph E
Paragraph F
Paragraph G
Paragraph H
Questions 5-8

Look at the following events (Questions 5-8) and the list of nationalities below.

Match each event with the correct nationality, A-F.

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet

List of Nationalities

A. Babylonians
B. Egyptians
C. Greeks
D. English
E. Germans
F. French
5. They devised a civil calendar in which the months were equal in length
A. Babylonians
B. Egyptians
C. Greeks
D. English
E. Germans
F. French
6. They divided the day into two equal halves.
A. Babylonians
B. Egyptians
C. Greeks
D. English
E. Germans
F. French
7. They developed a new cabinet shape for a type of timekeeper.
A. Babylonians
B. Egyptians
C. Greeks
D. English
E. Germans
F. French
8. They created a calendar to organise public events and work schedules.
A. Babylonians
B. Egyptians
C. Greeks
D. English
E. Germans
F. French

Questions 9-13

Label the diagram below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

9. type your answer here
10. type your answer here
11. type your answer here
12. type your answer here
13. type your answer here

Questions 14-19

Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs, A–G.

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A and C–G from the list below.

Write the correct number, i–x, in boxes 14–19 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i. Disobeying FAA regulations
ii. Aviation disaster prompts action
iii. Two coincidental developments
iv. Setting altitude zones
v. An oversimplified view
vi. Controlling pilots’ licences
vii. Defining airspace categories
viii. Setting rules to weather conditions
ix. Taking off safely
x. First steps towards ATC
14. Paragraph A
15. Paragraph C
16. Paragraph D
17. Paragraph E
18. Paragraph F
19. Paragraph G

Questions 20-26

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?

In boxes 20–26 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

20. The FAA was created as a result of the introduction of the jet engine.
TRUE
FALSE
NOT GIVEN
21. Air Traffic Control started after the Grand Canyon crash in 1956.
TRUE
FALSE
NOT GIVEN
22. Beacons and flashing lights are still used by ATC today.
TRUE
FALSE
NOT GIVEN
23. Some improvements were made in radio communication during World War II.
TRUE
FALSE
NOT GIVEN
24. Class F airspace is airspace which is below 365m and not near airports.
TRUE
FALSE
NOT GIVEN
25. All aircraft in Class E airspace must use IFR
TRUE
FALSE
NOT GIVEN
26. A pilot entering Class C airspace is flying over an average-sized city.
TRUE
FALSE
NOT GIVEN
Questions 27-30

Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A–G, below.

Write the correct letter, A–G, in boxes 27–30 on your answer sheet.

A. the discovery of a mechanism for telepathy.
B. the need to create a suitable environment for telepathy.
C. their claims of a high success rate.
D. a solution to the problem posed by random guessing.
E. the significance of the ganzfeld experiments.
F. a more careful selection of subjects.
G. a need to keep altering conditions.

27. Researchers with differing attitudes towards telepathy agree on
28. Reports of experiences during meditation indicated
29. Attitudes to parapsychology would alter drastically with
30. Recent autoganzfeld trials suggest that success rates will improve with
Questions 31-40

Complete the table below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 31–40 on your answer sheet.

31. type your answer here
32. type your answer here
33. type your answer here
34.type your answer here
35. type your answer here
36. type your answer here
37. type your answer here
38. type your answer here
39. type your answer here
40. type your answer here
Writing Section

Read the following text and answer the question 1.

The diagram above shows how fabric is manufactured from bamboo.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.
Type your answer here.. 50-150 word
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May 6, 2026
Pendaftaran IELTS SIMULATION TEST & TRIAL CLASS
Pendaftaran | IELTS SIMULATION TEST & TRIAL CLASS

IELTS DIAGNOSTIC TEST BATCH 3

Benefits:

– Ketahui estimasi IELTS band score sebelum real test
– Temukan skill yang perlu ditingkatkan
– Dapatkan rekomendasi belajar IELTS gratis sesuai hasil test
– Bonus akses komunitas belajar IELTS
– Online & Fleksibel dengan akses penuh 24 jam

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Fokus Belajar IELTS untuk keperluan apa?
Pilih Acara Yang Di ikuti
IELTS Simulation (Online Test)
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May 6, 2026
Daftar Mentoring Beasiswa ” Strategi Taklukkan LPDP”
MENTORING BEASISWA
“STRATEGI TAKLUKKAN LPDP”
Pendaftaran | MENTORING BEASISWA “STRATEGI TAKLUKKAN LPDP”

MENTORING BEASISWA

“STRATEGI TAKLUKKAN LPDP”

Benefit :

Free Konsultasi Beasiswa

Free Joining TOEFL Community

Networking Scholarship Hunter

Timeline :

Pendaftaran — 24-25 April 2026

❗ Syarat Mengikuti Event:

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April 24, 2026
TOEFL Practice Test | L50 S40 R 50
Hurry Up!
TOEFL Prediction Test | L50 S40 R 50
Start
Listening
Structure
Reading
Submit

TOEFL PREDICTION TEST
BATCH 3

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PBT Model Test

Section 1: Listening Comprehension

50 QUESTIONS 40 MINUTES

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test. When you take the actual TOEFL test, you will not be allowed to take notes or write in your test book. Try to work on this Model Test in the same way.
Part A

Directions: In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on your Answer Sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Part A

Attention: This audio can only be played once. The playback will be locked after completion.

Ready to start

1.
(A) Car repairs should be done at a garage.
(B) The price was not too high.
(C) The garage took advantage of the woman.
(D) The car had serious problems.
2.
(A) Have a party.
(B) Attend the International Students’ Association.
(C) Go to work.
(D) Get some rest.
3.
(A) Leave immediately.
(B) Watch the game on TV.
(C) Start to play.
(D) Eat a sandwich.
4.
(A) He went to see the foreign student advisor.
(B) He went to Washington.
(C) He wrote to the Passport Office.
(D) He reported it to the Passport Office.
5.
(A) It is the policy of the bank.
(B) The man was not helpful at all.
(C) Her account at the bank is in order.
(D) The check should be cashed.
6.
(A) Ask Dr. Tyler to clarify the assignment.
(B) Show a preliminary version to Dr. Tyler.
(C) Let her see the first draft before Dr. Tyler sees it.
(D) Talk to some of the other students in Dr. Tyler’s class.
7.
(A) Dr. Clark is a good teacher.
(B) Statistics is a boring class.
(C) Two semesters of statistics are required.
(D) The students do not like Dr. Clark.
8.
(A) He cannot do them.
(B) They are finished.
(C) It will be a difficult job.
(D) They will be ready Saturday afternoon.
9.
(A) A concert.
(B) An art museum.
(C) A flower shop.
(D) A restaurant.
10.
(A) He is at lunch.
(B) He is at the office.
(C) He is in class.
(D) He is at home.
11.
(A) Take the ten o’clock bus.
(B) Come back in five minutes.
(C) Go to New York another day.
(D) Call the airport.
12.
(A) A teacher.
(B) A textbook.
(C) An assignment.
(D) A movie.
13.
(A) Make corrections on the original.
(B) Make copies.
(C) Deliver the copies to Mr. Brown.
(D) Find the original.
14.
(A) She was Sally Harrison’s cousin.
(B) She was Sally Harrison’s sister.
(C) She was Sally Harrison’s friend.
(D) She was Sally Harrison.
15.
(A) The desk drawer won’t open.
(B) The pen is out of ink.
(C) She cannot find her pen.
(D) She is angry with the man.
16.
(A) John is usually late.
(B) John will be there at eight-thirty.
(C) John will not show up.
(D) John is usually on time.
17.
(A) She does not agree with the man.
(B) She needs a larger home.
(C) She regrets the cost of their vacation.
(D) She thinks that houses are very expensive.
18.
(A) He did not make a presentation.
(B) He got confused during the presentation.
(C) He should have spoken more loudly.
(D) He did a very complete job.
19.
(A) He has decided not to mail the invitations.
(B) He wants to get Janet’s opinion.
(C) He is waiting for Janet to answer the phone.
(D) He does not want to invite Janet.
20.
(A) The baby is asleep.
(B) The baby is very active.
(C) The baby is not staying with the woman.
(D) The baby is just about to start walking.
21.
(A) The results of the tests are not available.
(B) The experiment had unexpected results.
(C) He has not completed the experiment yet.
(D) It is taking a lot of time to do the experiment.
22.
(A) She does not put much effort in her studies.
(B) She is very likable.
(C) She prefers talking to the woman.
(D) She has a telephone.
23.
(A) See the doctor.
(B) Get another job.
(C) Go to the counter.
(D) Buy some medicine.
24.
(A) She will try her best.
(B) She has to save her money.
(C) She is still undecided.
(D) She needs an application.
25.
(A) She is glad to meet Robert.
(B) She is surprised to hear from Robert.
(C) She does not enjoy talking with Robert.
(D) She was ready to call Robert.
26.
(A) The man must stop working.
(B) There is a little more time.
(C) The test is important.
(D) It is time for the test.
27.
(A) The woman’s roommate took a different class.
(B) The book is very expensive.
(C) The textbook may have been changed.
(D) The course is not offered this semester.
28.
(A) Sally may get a bike for Christmas.
(B) Sally already has a bike like that one.
(C) Sally likes riding a bike.
(D) Sally may prefer a different gift.
29.
(A) He does not want to give Carol a ride.
(B) He does not have a car.
(C) He cannot hear well.
(D) He does not know Carol.
30.
(A) Take a break.
(B) Go to work.
(C) Do the other problems.
(D) Keep trying.
Part B

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on your Answer Sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write on your test pages.

Part B

Attention: This audio can only be played once. The playback will be locked after completion.

Ready to start

31.
(A) Whether to introduce the metric system in the United States.
(B) How the metric system should be introduced in the United States.
(C) Which system is better—the English system or the metric system.
(D) How to convert measurements from the English system to the metric system.
32.
(A) Now the weather on radio and TV is reported exclusively in metrics.
(B) Road signs have miles marked on them, but not kilometers.
(C) Both the English system and the metric system are being used on signs, packages, and weather reports.
(D) Grocery stores use only metrics for their packaging.
33.
(A) He thought that a gradual adoption would be better for everyone.
(B) He thought that only metrics should be used.
(C) He thought that only the English system should be used.
(D) He thought that adults should use both systems, but that children should be taught only the metric system.
34.
(A) Unfriendly.
(B) Patronizing.
(C) Uninterested.
(D) Cooperative.
35.
(A) To change his travel plans.
(B) To arrange a time to pick up his tickets.
(C) To reserve a hotel room.
(D) To make a plane reservation.
36.
(A) The man can save money by staying an extra night.
(B) The man should have called earlier.
(C) She needs the man to come into the office.
(D) She will mail the tickets to the man.
37.
(A) Travel on May 19 as planned.
(B) Wait for a cheaper fare.
(C) Stay an extra day in Atlanta.
(D) Return on Sunday.
38.
(A) Go back to his hotel.
(B) Pack his suitcase.
(C) Call a different travel agent.
(D) Go to the travel agent’s office in the afternoon.
Part C

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on your Answer Sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Part C

Attention: This audio can only be played once. The playback will be locked after completion.

Ready to start

39.
(A) Private industry.
(B) Advances in medicine.
(C) Space missions.
(D) Technological developments.
40.
(A) Contact lenses.
(B) Cordless tools.
(C) Food packaging.
(D) Ultrasound.
41.
(A) To monitor the condition of astronauts in spacecraft.
(B) To evaluate candidates who wanted to join the space program.
(C) To check the health of astronauts when they returned from space.
(D) To test spacecraft and equipment for imperfections.
42.
(A) Archaeologists and astronauts were compared.
(B) Astronauts made photographs of the Earth later used by archaeologists.
(C) Archaeologists have used advances in medical technology developed for astronauts.
(D) Space missions and underwater missions are very similar.
43.
(A) Transportation on the Pacific Coast.
(B) History of California.
(C) Orientation to San Francisco.
(D) Specifications of the Golden Gate Bridge.
44.
(A) Golden Gate.
(B) San Francisco de Asis Mission.
(C) Military Post Seventy-six.
(D) Yerba Buena.
45.
(A) Gold was discovered.
(B) The Transcontinental Railroad was completed.
(C) The Golden Gate Bridge was constructed.
(D) Telegraph communications were established with the East.
46.
(A) Eighteen miles.
(B) 938 feet.
(C) One mile.
(D) Between five and six miles.
47.
(A) The term “essay.”
(B) Prose writing.
(C) Personal viewpoint.
(D) Brainstorming.
48.
(A) The work of Alexander Pope.
(B) The difference between prose and poetry.
(C) The general characteristics of essays.
(D) The reason that the phrase “personal essay” is redundant.
49.
(A) It is usually short.
(B) It can be either prose or poetry.
(C) It expresses a personal point of view.
(D) It discusses one topic.
50.
(A) They will prepare for a quiz.
(B) They will write their first essay.
(C) They will read works by Pope.
(D) They will review their notes.

PBT Model Test

Section 2: Structure and Written Expression

40 QUESTIONS 25 MINUTES

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.
Structure

Directions: Questions 1–15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence, you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your Answer Sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
1. Based on the premise that light was composed of color, the Impressionists came to the conclusion ——- not really black.
(A) which was that shadows
(B) was shadows which
(C) were shadows
(D) that shadows were
2. ——— a parliamentary system, the prime minister must be appointed on the basis of the distribution of power in the parliament.
(A) The considered
(B) To be considered
(C) Considering
(D) Considers
3. ——— of the play Mourning Becomes Electra introduces the cast of characters and hints at the plot.
(A) The act first
(B) Act one
(C) Act first
(D) First act
4. As soon as ——— with an acid, salt, and sometimes water, is formed.
(A) a base will react
(B) a base reacts
(C) a base is reacting
(D) the reaction of a base
5. The Internal Revenue Service ——- their tax forms by April 15 every year.
(A) makes all Americans file
(B) makes all Americans to file
(C) makes the filing of all Americans
(D) makes all Americans filing
6. Although one of his ships succeeded in sailing all the way back to Spain past the Cape of Good Hope, Magellan never completed the first circumnavigation of the world, and ———.
(A) most of his crew didn’t too
(B) neither most of his crew did
(C) neither did most of his crew
(D) most of his crew didn’t also
7. To answer accurately is more important than ———.
(A) a quick finish
(B) to finish quickly
(C) finishing quickly
(D) you finish quickly
8. Weathering ——— the action whereby surface rock is disintegrated or decomposed.
(A) it is
(B) is that
(C) is
(D) being
9. A telephone recording tells callers ———
(A) what time the movie starts
(B) what time starts the movie
(C) what time does the movie start
(D) the movie starts what time
10. The people of Western Canada have been considering ——— themselves from the rest of the provinces.
(A) to separate
(B) separated
(C) separate
(D) separating
11. It costs about sixty dollars to have a tooth ———.
(A) filling
(B) to fill
(C) filled
(D) fill
12. Not until a student has mastered algebra ——— the principles of geometry, trigonometry, and physics.
(A) he can begin to understand
(B) can he begin to understand
(C) he begins to understand
(D) begins to understand
13. Although Margaret Mead had several assistants during her long investigations of Samoa, the bulk of the research was done by ——— alone.
(A) herself
(B) she
(C) her
(D) hers
14. ——— war correspondent, Hemingway used his experiences for some of his most powerful novels.
(A) But a
(B) It is a
(C) While
(D) A
15. Thirty-eight national sites are known as parks, another eighty-two as monuments, and ———.
(A) the another one hundred seventy-eight as historical sites
(B) the other one hundred seventy-eight as historical sites
(C) seventy-eight plus one hundred more as historical sites
(D) as historical sites one hundred seventy-eight
Written Expression

Directions: In questions 16–40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your Answer Sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
16. Interest in automatic data processing has grown rapid since the first large calculators were introduced in 1950.
(A) in
(B) grown
(C) rapid
(D) since
17. Vaslav Nijinsky achieved world recognition as both a dancer as well as a choreographer.
(A) achieved
(B) as
(C) a dancer
(D) as well as
18. Airports must be located near to major population centers for the advantage of air transportation to be retained.
(A) be located
(B) near to
(C) of air transportation
(D) to be retained
19. It is said that Einstein felt very badly about the application of his theories to the creation of weapons of war.
(A) it is said
(B) very
(C) badly
(D) to
20. The plants that they belong to the family of ferns are quite varied in their size and structure.
(A) they
(B) belong to
(C) are
(D) their
21. Despite of the increase in air fares, most people still prefer to travel by plane.
(A) despite of
(B) still
(C) prefer
(D) to travel
22. All of we students must have an identification card in order to check books out of the library.
(A) we
(B) have
(C) out
(D) of
23. Columbus Day is celebrated on the twelve of October because on that day in 1492, Christopher Columbus first landed in the Americas.
(A) is celebrated
(B) on
(C) twelve
(D) because
24. One of the most influence newspapers in the U.S. is The New York Times, which is widely distributed throughout the world.
(A) the most
(B) influence
(C) is
(D) widely distributed
25. An unexpected raise in the cost of living as well as a decline in employment opportunities resulted in the rapid creation by Congress of new government programs for the unemployed.
(A) raise
(B) as well as
(C) resulted in
(D) rapid
26. It is imperative that a graduate student maintains a grade point average of “B” in his major field.
(A) it is
(B) maintains
(C) of
(D) his
27. Coastal and inland waters are inhabited not only by fish but also by such sea creature as shrimps and clams.
(A) are inhabited
(B) not only
(C) such
(D) sea creature
28. Economists have tried to discourage the use of the phrase “underdeveloped nation” and encouraging the more accurate phrase “developing nation” in order to suggest an ongoing process.
(A) to discourage
(B) the use
(C) encouraging
(D) the more
29. A gas like propane will combination with water molecules in a saline solution to form a solid called a hydrate.
(A) like
(B) combination
(C) to form
(D) called
30. Although it cannot be proven, presumable the expansion of the universe will slow down as it approaches a critical radius.
(A) it
(B) be proven.
(C) presumable
(D) it approaches
31. Regardless of your teaching method, the objective of any conversation class should be for the students to practice speaking words.
(A) regardless
(B) should
(C) to practice
(D) speaking words
32. A City University professor reported that he discovers a vaccine that has been 80 percent effective in reducing the instances of tooth decay among small children.
(A) discovers
(B) that
(C) in reducing
(D) among
33. American baseball teams, once the only contenders for the world championship, are now being challenged by either Japanese teams and Venezuelan teams.
(A) once
(B) being
(C) by
(D) either
34. When they have been frightened, as, for example, by an electrical storm, dairy cows may refuse giving milk.
(A) have been
(B) frightened
(C) by
(D) giving
35. Miami, Florida is among the few cities in the United States that has been awarded official status as bilingual municipalities.
(A) among
(B) that
(C) has beed awarded
(D) as
36. No other quality is more important for a scientist to acquire as to observe carefully.
(A) no other
(B) for
(C) as
(D) carefully
37. After the police had tried unsuccessfully to determine to who the car belonged, they towed it into the station.
(A) the police
(B) unsuccessfully
(C) who
(D) it
38. Fertilizers are used primarily to enrich soil and increasing yield.
(A) are used
(B) primarily
(C) soil
(D) increasing
39. If the ozone gases of the atmosphere did not filter out the ultraviolet rays of the sun, life as we know it would not have evolved on Earth.
(A) did not filter out
(B) as
(C) it
(D) on Earth
40. The regulation requires that everyone who holds a nonimmigrant visa reports an address to the federal government in January of each year.
(A) who
(B) holds
(C) reports
(D) an

PBT Model Test

Section 3: Reading Comprehension

50 QUESTIONS 55 MINUTES
Reading Comprehension

Directions: In this section, you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of questions about it. For questions 1–50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on your Answer Sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
1. What does this passage mainly discuss?
(A) Precipitation
(B) Snowfall
(C) New York State
(D) A general formula
2. Which of the following is another word that is often used in place of precipitation?
(A) Humidity
(B) Wetness
(C) Rainfall
(D) Rain-snow
3. The term precipitation includes
(A) only rainfall
(B) rain, hail, and snow
(C) rain, snow, and humidity
(D) rain, hail, and humidity
4. What is the average annual rainfall in inches in the United States?
(A) Thirty-six inches
(B) Thirty-eight inches
(C) Forty inches
(D) Forty-two inches
5. If a state has 40 inches of snow in a year, by how much does this increase the annual precipitation?
(A) By two feet
(B) By four inches
(C) By four feet
(D) By 40 inches
6. The phrase “proximity to” in line 10 is closest in meaning to
(A) communication with
(B) dependence on
(C) nearness to
(D) similarity to
7. Where is the annual precipitation highest?
(A) The Atlantic Coast
(B) The Great Lakes
(C) The Gulf of Mexico
(D) The Pacific Coast
8. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a factor in determining the amount of precipitation that an area will receive?
(A) Mountains
(B) Latitude
(C) The sea
(D) Wind
9. The word “substantially” in line 18 could best be replaced by
(A) fundamentally
(B) slightly
(C) completely
(D) apparently
10. The word “that” in line 19 refers to
(A) decreases
(B) precipitation
(C) areas
(D) mountain ranges
11. Where would this passage most likely be found?
(A) In a syllabus
(B) In a college catalog
(C) In an undergraduate course
(D) In a graduate course
12. What is the purpose of the passage?
(A) To inform
(B) To persuade
(C) To criticize
(D) To apologize
13. The word “prerequisites” in line 4 is closest in meaning to
(A) courses required before enrolling
(B) courses needed for graduation
(C) courses that include additional charges
(D) courses that do not carry academic credit
14. The word “those” in line 6 refers to
(A) graduate students
(B) graduate courses
(C) introductory courses
(D) Course number
15. Which classification of students would be eligible to enroll in Mechanical Engineering 850?
(A) A graduate student
(B) A part-time student
(C) A full-time student
(D) An undergraduate student
16. If an undergraduate student uses the number 520 to register for an accounting course, what number would a graduate student probably use to register for the same course?
(A) Accounting 520
(B) Accounting 620
(C) Accounting 720
(D) Accounting 820
17. How is a student who registers for eight credit hours classified?
(A) Full-time student
(B) Graduate student
(C) Part-time student
(D) Non-degree student
18. Which of the following courses would not be included in the list of courses for graduation?
(A) English 90
(B) English 100
(C) English 300
(D) English 400
19. A graduate student may NOT
(A) enroll in a course numbered 610
(B) register for only one one-hour course
(C) register for courses if he has an assistantship
(D) enroll in an introductory course
20. The phrase “under any circumstances” in line 19-20 is closest in meaning to
(A) without cause
(B) without permission
(C) without exception
(D) with exception
21. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
(A) The Wyoming Territory
(B) The Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments
(C) Abolitionists
(D) Women’s suffrage
22. The word “ban” in line 3 most nearly means to
(A) encourage
(B) publish
(C) prohibit
(D) limit
23. The word “supported” in line 6 could best be replaced by
(A) disregarded
(B) acknowledged
(C) contested
(D) promoted
24. According to the passage, why did women become active in politics?
(A) To improve the conditions of life that existed at the time
(B) To support Elizabeth Cady Stanton for president
(C) To be elected to public office
(D) To amend the Declaration of Independence
25. The word “primarily” in line 10 is closest in meaning to
(A) above all
(B) somewhat
(C) finally
(D) always
26. What had occurred shortly after the Civil War?
(A) The Wyoming Territory was admitted to the Union.
(B) A women’s suffrage bill was introduced in Congress.
(C) The eastern states resisted the end of the war.
(D) Black people were granted the right to vote.
27. The word “suffrage” in line 13 could best be replaced by which of the following?
(A) pain
(B) citizenship
(C) freedom from bondage
(D) the right to vote
28. What does the Nineteenth Amendment guarantee?
(A) Voting rights for blacks
(B) Citizenship for blacks
(C) Voting rights for women
(D) Citizenship for women
29. The word “it” in line 17 refers to
(A) bill
(B) Congress
(C) Nineteenth Amendment
(D) vote
30. When were women allowed to vote throughout the United States?
(A) After 1866
(B) After 1870
(C) After 1878
(D) After 1920
31. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
(A) Local research and harmful effects of fertilizer
(B) Advantages and disadvantages of liquid fertilizer
(C) A formula for the production of fertilizer
(D) Content, form, and effects of fertilizer
32. The word “essential” in line 2 could best be replaced by which of the following?
(A) limited
(B) preferred
(C) anticipated
(D) required
33. In the formula 3-6-4
(A) The content of nitrogen is greater than that of potash
(B) The content of potash is greater than that of phosphoric acid
(C) The content of phosphoric acid is less than that of nitrogen
(D) The content of nitrogen is less than that of phosphoric acid
34. Which of the following has the smallest percentage content in the formula 4-8-2?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Acid
(D) Potash
35. What is the percentage of nitrogen in a 5-8-7 formula fertilizer?
(A) 3 percent
(B) 5 percent
(C) 7 percent
(D) 8 percent
36. The word “designate” in line 8 could be replaced by
(A) modify
(B) specify
(C) limit
(D) increase
37. Which of the following statements about fertilizer is true?
(A) Powders are more popular than ever.
(B) Solids are difficult to store.
(C) Liquids are increasing in popularity.
(D) Chemical granules are difficult to apply.
38. The word “these” in line 14 refers to
(A) powders
(B) solids
(C) liquids
(D) fertilizer
39. The word “convenient” in line 14 is closest in meaning to
(A) effective
(B) plentiful
(C) easy to use
(D) cheap to produce
40. What happens when too much fertilizer is used?
(A) Local research teams provide recommendations
(B) Algae in the water supplies begin to die.
(C) Animals and humans may become ill.
(D) Crops have no harmful effects.
41. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) A History of New York City
(B) An Account of the Dutch Colonies
(C) A Biography of Peter Minuit
(D) The First Capital of the United States
42. What did the Indians receive in exchange for their island?
(A) Sixty Dutch guilders
(B) $24.12 U.S.
(C) Goods and supplies
(D) Land in New Amsterdam
43. Where was New Amsterdam located?
(A) In Holland
(B) In North America
(C) On the island of Manhattan
(D) In India
44. The word “heterogeneous” in line 8 could best be replaced by
(A) liberal
(B) renowned
(C) diverse
(D) prosperous
45. Why were so many languages spoken in New Amsterdam?
(A) The Dutch West India Company was owned by England
(B) The Dutch West India Company allowed freedom of speech
(C) The Dutch West India Company recruited settlers from many different countries in Europe.
(D) The Indians who lived there before the Dutch West India Company purchase spoke many languages
46. The word “formidable” in line 17 is closest in meaning to
(A) powerful
(B) modern
(C) expensive
(D) unexpected
47. The name of New Amsterdam was changed
(A) to avoid a war with England
(B) to honor the Duke of York
(C) to attract more English colonists from Connecticut and Massachusetts
(D) to encourage trade during the 1690s
48. The word “it” in line 21 refers to
(A) Revolution
(B) New York City
(C) the island
(D) the first capital
49. Which city was the first capital of the new United States?
(A) New Amsterdam
(B) New York
(C) Philadelphia
(D) Washington
50. On what date was Manhattan valued at $7 billion?
(A) 1626
(B) 1726
(C) 1656
(D) 1926
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April 9, 2026